cross-posted to 8040.
I found it very interesting how Aristotle defines the components of wealth. There is both a productive aspect, as well as an enjoyable component to wealth. The productive part of wealth is “what produces income;” whereas, the enjoyable part of wealth is “that from which there is no gain worth mentioning beyond the use of it.” (59).
When we define affective production, we are speaking of the product from labor from which ‘there is no gain worth mentioning beyond the use of it,’ but I think it is important to note that we need a balance of both. Plus, also as Aristotle notes, “wealth consists more in use than in possession” (59). This statement would seem to indicate that sharing possessions for joint use is where it’s at.
My friend L. has told me stories of living in Berkeley 30-40 years ago and being able to borrow power tools from a cooperative. Imagine sharing a lawn mower and trimmer/edger with your neighbor(s). How wonderful would that be?
But, turning back to Aristotle, he defines wealth as an external good. I think there is an emotional component to wealth that makes it also an internal good, for when we have “enough” to feel secure and are not living paycheck to paycheck, and have enough to meet our immediate needs, there is an emotional level of security with having enough. Has anyone seen if Aristotle makes this distinction elsewhere?
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